FGEI today test paper answer keys 23-02-2025

Below are the solutions to the multiple-choice questions (MCQs) from the Elementary School Teacher (BPS-14) Induction 2025 examination. Each question is addressed with the correct option and a brief explanation.

1. Which of the following is a synonym for ‘breakneck’?

- Options: (A) leisurely, (B) dangerous, (C) slow, (D) rapid

- Correct Answer: (D) rapid

- Explanation: “Breakneck” means very fast or dangerously fast. “Rapid” is the closest synonym, as it directly refers to speed, while “dangerous” is related but less precise.

2. Complete the sentence with correct preposition: She writes ______ blue ink.

- Options: (A) with, (B) by, (C) in, (D) at

- Correct Answer: (C) in

- Explanation: The correct preposition for writing tools like ink is “in.” The sentence becomes: “She writes in blue ink.”

3. Change the voice: I know him.

- Options: (A) He is known; by me, (B) He is known to me, (C) He is known1 by me, (D) He has been known to me

- Correct Answer: (B) He is known to me

- Explanation: While the strict passive voice of “I know him” would be “He is known by me,” in English, “He is known to me” is more commonly used to express awareness or familiarity, which aligns with the meaning of the original sentence. Options (A) and (C) contain typographical errors, and (D) changes the tense unnecessarily.

4. Change into indirect: He said to me, “Do you like rice?”

- Options: (A) He asked me if I liked rice, (B) He asked me if I like rice, (C) He asked me if I like1 rice, (D) He said to me if I like rice

- Correct Answer: (A) He asked me if I liked rice

- Explanation: In indirect speech, the question “Do you like rice?” changes to “He asked me if I liked rice.” The reporting verb “said” changes to “asked” for questions, and the tense shifts to past (“liked”). Option (B) uses present tense (“like”), (C) has a typo (“like1”), and (D) incorrectly uses “said” instead of “asked.”

5. If I had worked hard, I ______ passed the test.

- Options: (A) would, (B) would had, (C) would have, (D) will have

- Correct Answer: (C) would have

- Explanation: This is a third conditional sentence, which describes hypothetical past situations and their results. The correct form is “If I had worked hard, I would have passed the test.” Option (B) is grammatically incorrect, and (D) uses future tense, which is inappropriate.

6. Persimmon is a ______.

- Options: (A) vegetable, (B) bread, (C) star, (D) fruit

- Correct Answer: (D) fruit

- Explanation: Persimmon is a type of fruit, making (D) the correct choice.

7. Choose correct spelling for the missing word: My ______ needs to be paid every month.

- Options: (A) mortagag, (B) mortgage, (C) morguage, (D) morgauge

- Correct Answer: (B) mortgage

- Explanation: The correct spelling is “mortgage.” The other options are misspelled.

8. Words have no link with their meanings. This is called:

- Options: (A) alliteration, (B) personification, (C) arbitrariness, (D) remoteness

- Correct Answer: (C) arbitrariness

- Explanation: The concept that the connection between a word and its meaning is arbitrary (not inherent) is called “arbitrariness.” Options (A) and (B) are literary devices, and (D) is unrelated.

9. Identify the exclamatory sentence:

- Options: (A) stop talking right now, (B) I like ice-cream, (C) What an amazing performance!, (D) Are you coming with us?

- Correct Answer: (C) What an amazing performance!

- Explanation: An exclamatory sentence expresses strong emotion and ends with an exclamation mark. Option (C) is the only exclamatory sentence. Option (D) is an interrogative sentence, and (A) and (B) are declarative.

10. Which of the following words is the best antonym for ‘fortitude’?

- Options: (A) determination, (B) courage, (C) resilience, (D) weakness

- Correct Answer: (D) weakness

- Explanation: “Fortitude” means strength or endurance in adversity. The best antonym is “weakness.” Options (A), (B), and (C) are related to strength and are not antonyms.

11. Life is continuous changing process is the base of educational philosophy:

- Options: (A) Perennialism, (B) Essentialism, (C) Progressivism, (D) Reconstructionism

- Correct Answer: (C) Progressivism

- Explanation: Progressivism emphasizes change, adaptability, and learning as a continuous process, making (C) the correct choice. Perennialism and Essentialism focus on traditional knowledge, and Reconstructionism focuses on social reform.

12. Type of counseling focuses on helping individual explore and understand his thought & feeling:

- Options: (A) directive, (B) non-directive, (C) behavioral, (D) cognitive

- Correct Answer: (B) non-directive

- Explanation: Non-directive counseling (client-centered therapy) focuses on helping individuals explore their thoughts and feelings, making (B) correct. Directive counseling involves giving advice, and (C) and (D) focus on behavior and cognition, respectively.

13. Classroom environment will be ‘Teacher Centered’ if teacher is:

- Options: (A) Pragmatist, (B) Naturalist, (C) Idealist, (D) Socialist

- Correct Answer: (C) Idealist

- Explanation: Idealist teachers emphasize the teacher’s role in imparting knowledge, leading to a teacher-centered classroom. Pragmatists and Naturalists focus on student-centered approaches, and Socialism is unrelated to classroom dynamics.

14. Which assessment method evaluates Student Learning Outcomes (SLOs) during the lesson:

- Options: (A) diagnostic, (B) formative, (C) summative, (D) evaluative

- Correct Answer: (B) formative

- Explanation: Formative assessment evaluates student learning during the lesson to provide feedback and adjust teaching. Diagnostic assessment is for pre-assessment, summative is for final evaluation, and evaluative is not a standard term.

15. Teaching through deductive method is from:

- Options: (A) general to specific, (B) macro to micro, (C) easy to difficult, (D) specific to general

- Correct Answer: (A) general to specific

- Explanation: The deductive method starts with general rules or principles and applies them to specific examples, making (A) correct. Option (D) describes the inductive method.

16. Projective techniques are used to measure:

- Options: (A) achievement, (B) intelligence, (C) aptitude, (D) personality

- Correct Answer: (D) personality

- Explanation: Projective techniques, such as the Rorschach test, are used to assess personality by analyzing responses to ambiguous stimuli. Options (A), (B), and (C) are measured by other methods.

17. Reliability of an assessment relates to the ______ of an assessment:

- Options: (A) usefulness, (B) quality, (C) consistency, (D) relevance

- Correct Answer: (C) consistency

- Explanation: Reliability refers to the consistency of assessment results over time or across conditions. Usefulness, quality, and relevance are related but not the definition of reliability.

18. Pedagogy is a Greek word which literally means ______ the child:

- Options: (A) to understand, (B) to guide, (C) to educate, (D) to lead

- Correct Answer: (D) to lead

- Explanation: “Pedagogy” comes from the Greek word meaning “to lead the child,” making (D) correct. Options (A), (B), and (C) are related but not literal translations.

19. The most complex skill of Bloom’s taxonomy is:

- Options: (A) Characterizing, (B) Evaluation, (C) Synthesizing, (D) Originating

- Correct Answer: (B) Evaluation

- Explanation: In the original Bloom’s taxonomy, the levels are Knowledge, Comprehension, Application, Analysis, Synthesis, and Evaluation, with Evaluation being the most complex. In the revised taxonomy, Creating (similar to Synthesizing) is the highest, but based on the options, (B) Evaluation is correct for the original taxonomy.

20. Which model of learning combines in-person instruction with online or digital components?

- Options: (A) Traditional, (B) Flipped, (C) Blended, (D) Project-Based

- Correct Answer: (C) Blended

- Explanation: Blended learning combines in-person instruction with online or digital components, making (C) correct. Traditional learning is fully in-person, flipped involves pre-recorded lessons, and project-based focuses on projects.

21. Which river does not flow on Pakistan land:

- Options: (A) Sutlej, (B) Gomal, (C) Ravi, (D) Beas

- Correct Answer: (D) Beas

- Explanation: The Beas River primarily flows in India and does not flow through Pakistan. The Sutlej, Gomal, and Ravi rivers flow through Pakistan.

22. Wah Ordnance factory was constructed with help of:

- Options: (A) China, (B) France, (C) Russia, (D) Iran

- Correct Answer: (A) China

- Explanation: The Wah Ordnance Factory was established with assistance from China, reflecting the close defense ties between Pakistan and China.

23. Shariat bench in all high courts were established in:

- Options: (A) 1977, (B) 1978, (C) 1979, (D) 1980

- Correct Answer: (C) 1979

- Explanation: The Shariat benches in Pakistan’s high courts were established in 1979 as part of the judicial reforms under General Zia-ul-Haq’s Islamization policies.

24. First dry port of Pakistan was constructed in:

- Options: (A) Quetta, (B) Multan, (C) Lahore, (D) Karachi

- Correct Answer: (C) Lahore

- Explanation: The first dry port in Pakistan was constructed in Lahore in 1973 to facilitate trade and reduce congestion at Karachi Port.

25. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded the British Indian Association in:

- Options: (A) 1883, (B) 1864, (C) 1863, (D) 1855

- Correct Answer: (C) 1863

- Explanation: Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded the British Indian Association in 1863 to represent the interests of Muslims in British India.

26. Which document is considered the precursor to the Two-Nation Theory?

- Options: (A) Khilafat Manifesto, (B) Delhi proposal, (C) Lucknow Pact, (D) Cabinet Mission Plan

- Correct Answer: (C) Lucknow Pact

- Explanation: The Lucknow Pact of 1916 is considered a precursor to the Two-Nation Theory as it recognized separate electorates for Muslims, acknowledging their distinct political identity.

27. Which city is referred to as the ‘Switzerland of the East’?

- Options: (A) Gilgit, (B) Murree, (C) Swat, (D) Chitral

- Correct Answer: (C) Swat

- Explanation: Swat Valley is often called the “Switzerland of the East” due to its scenic beauty, mountains, and rivers, resembling the Swiss landscape.

28. What is the total length of Pakistan’s international borders?

- Options: (A) 5,600 km, (B) 6,774 km, (C) 7,200 km, (D) 7,992 km

- Correct Answer: (B) 6,774 km

- Explanation: Pakistan shares international borders with India, Afghanistan, Iran, and China, totaling approximately 6,774 km.

29. Due to 25th amendment in 1973 Constitution, number of members of the Senate are:

- Options: (A) 342, (B) 104, (C) 96, (D) 336

- Correct Answer: (B) 104

- Explanation: The 25th Amendment to the 1973 Constitution of Pakistan, passed in 2018, merged the Federally Administered Tribal Areas (FATA) with Khyber Pakhtunkhwa. The total number of Senate members remains 104.

30. Which Indian Prime Minister visited the Minar-e-Pakistan?

- Options: (A) Rajiv Gandhi, (B) Indra Gandhi, (C) Manmohan Singh, (D) Vajpayee

- Correct Answer: (D) Vajpayee

- Explanation: Indian Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee visited the Minar-e-Pakistan in 1999 during his historic Lahore bus diplomacy trip.

31. What is the phenomenon of bending of light around a corner?

- Options: (A) Reflection, (B) Refraction, (C) Diffraction, (D) Dispersion

- Correct Answer: (C) Diffraction

- Explanation: Diffraction is the bending of light waves around obstacles or through narrow openings, allowing light to spread into regions that would otherwise be in shadow.

32. Which type of wave is sound?

- Options: (A) Longitudinal, (B) Transverse, (C) Electromagnetic, (D) Stationary

- Correct Answer: (A) Longitudinal

- Explanation: Sound waves are longitudinal waves, meaning the particle displacement is parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

33. The SI unit of power is:

- Options: (A) Joule, (B) Watt, (C) Newton, (D) Pascal

- Correct Answer: (B) Watt

- Explanation: The SI unit of power is the watt (W), which is defined as one joule per second.

34. Which type of reaction involves the exchange of ions?

- Options: (A) Decomposition, (B) Synthesis, (C) Double displacement, (D) Combustion

- Correct Answer: (C) Double displacement

- Explanation: Double displacement reactions involve the exchange of ions between two compounds, often resulting in the formation of a precipitate.

35. Which metal is extracted from bauxite?

- Options: (A) Iron, (B) Aluminum, (C) Copper, (D) Zinc

- Correct Answer: (B) Aluminum

- Explanation: Bauxite is the primary ore from which aluminum is extracted through the Bayer process.

36. In the human body, which organ is primarily responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?

- Options: (A) Liver, (B) Stomach, (C) Pancreas, (D) Kidney

- Correct Answer: (C) Pancreas

- Explanation: The pancreas regulates blood glucose levels by producing insulin and glucagon, which control the uptake and release of glucose.

37. Which of the following is a viral disease?

- Options: (A) Malaria, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Chickenpox, (D) Tetanus

- Correct Answer: (C) Chickenpox

- Explanation: Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Malaria is caused by a parasite, tuberculosis by bacteria, and tetanus by bacterial toxins.

38. Which vitamin is produced by the human body when exposed to sunlight?

- Options: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin C, (C) Vitamin D, (D) Vitamin K

- Correct Answer: (C) Vitamin D

- Explanation: The human body synthesizes vitamin D when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) rays from sunlight.

39. Primary function of large intestine is:

- Options: (A) Nutrient absorption, (B) Water absorption, (C) Protein digestion, (D) Fat digestion

- Correct Answer: (B) Water absorption

- Explanation: The large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes from indigestible food matter, forming solid waste.

40. Main component of natural gas is:

- Options: (A) Methane, (B) Propane, (C) Butane, (D) Propene

- Correct Answer: (A) Methane

- Explanation: Natural gas is primarily composed of methane (CH₄), typically making up 70-90% of its composition.

41. If you have an average score of x in five tests and you want to increase your average to y after taking one more test, what score do you need on that test?

- Options: (A) y * (5x), (B) 5y – 5x, (C) y * (5 – x), (D) 5x – 5y

- Correct Answer: None of the options are correct (see explanation)

- Explanation: The total score for five tests is 5x. To achieve an average of y over six tests, the total score needed is 6y. Therefore, the score needed on the sixth test is 6y – 5x. However, this formula is not listed in the options. Option (B) 5y – 5x is incorrect, as it does not match the required formula. It appears there may be a typo in the question or options.

42. A dice is rolled once. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?

- Options: (A) 1/6, (B) 1/2, (C) 1/3, (D) 1/4

- Correct Answer: (C) 1/3

- Explanation: A standard die has six faces: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. Numbers greater than 4 are 5 and 6, so there are 2 favorable outcomes out of 6, giving a probability of 2/6 = 1/3.

43. How many distinct arrangements can be made from the letters of the word ‘BOOK’?

- Options: (A) 24, (B) 12, (C) 4, (D) 6

- Correct Answer: (B) 12

- Explanation: The word “BOOK” has 4 letters with two O’s. The number of distinct arrangements is 4! / 2! = 24 / 2 = 12.

44. How far from a wall is a 10 m long ladder, leaning against a wall forming a 60° angle with it:

- Options: (A) 5 m, (B) 5√3 m, (C) 10 m, (D) 10√3 m

- Correct Answer: (A) 5 m

- Explanation: In a right-angled triangle, the ladder is the hypotenuse (10 m), and the angle with the wall is 60°. The distance from the wall is the adjacent side, so using cosine: cos(60°) = adjacent / hypotenuse → 0.5 = adjacent / 10 → adjacent = 5 m.

45. What is size of class interval (4–7)?

- Options: (A) 4, (B) 5, (C) 6, (D) 7

- Correct Answer: (A) 4

- Explanation: The class interval (4–7) includes numbers from 4 to 7. Typically, the size of the interval is 7 – 4 = 3, but in some contexts, especially if inclusive of both endpoints, it may be considered as 4 units (the number of integers from 4 to 7 inclusive). Given the options, (A) 4 is selected.

46. The next number in series: 27,32,30,35,33,…

- Options: (A) 36, (B) 37, (C) 31, (D) 38

- Correct Answer: (D) 38

- Explanation: Observing the pattern: 27 to 32 (+5), 32 to 30 (-2), 30 to 35 (+5), 35 to 33 (-2), so the next should be 33 + 5 = 38.

47. Solve it: 10 – 40 + 6 × 20 + 4 =

- Options: (A) 0, (B) 1, (C) 2, (D) 3

- Correct Answer: (A) 0

- Explanation: Assuming a typo in the operations (× might be intended as +), following the order of operations: 10 – 40 + 6 + 20 + 4. First, 10 – 40 = -30, then -30 + 6 = -24, then -24 + 20 = -4, and -4 + 4 = 0. Given the options, (A) 0 is selected.

48. Which number is self-multiplicative inverse?

- Options: (A) 0, (B) 2, (C) –2, (D) –1

- Correct Answer: (D) –1

- Explanation: A number that is its own multiplicative inverse satisfies x * x = 1. So, x² = 1 ⇒ x = ±1. Since -1 * -1 = 1, -1 is its own multiplicative inverse.

49. Mass of a block A is 2.35 kg less than the mass of block B. The total mass of the two blocks is 4 kg and 50 g. What is the mass of block B in kg?

- Options: (A) 6.4, (B) 3.2, (C) 2.15, (D) None of above

- Correct Answer: (B) 3.2

- Explanation: Let mass of block B be m kg. Then mass of block A is m – 2.35 kg. Total mass = m + (m – 2.35) = 2m – 2.35 kg. Given total mass is 4 kg 50 g = 4.05 kg. So, 2m – 2.35 = 4.05 ⇒ 2m = 6.4 ⇒ m = 3.2 kg.

50. Which of the following measure the central tendency?

- Options: (A) variance, (B) range, (C) standard deviation, (D) arithmetic mean

- Correct Answer: (D) arithmetic mean

- Explanation: The arithmetic mean is a measure of central tendency, representing the average of a dataset. Variance, range, and standard deviation measure dispersion or spread.

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